Flexeril® is a) the trade name for naproxen b) used to manage osteoporosis c) the only drug that cures rheumatoid arthritis d) a muscle relaxant
The following drug has antipyretic, analgesic and anti-inflammatory properties a) meloxicam b) diclofenac c) etodolac d) ibuprofen
Ringing in the ears and hearing loss is most likely to occur with overuse of a) Aspirin® b) Etidrocal® c) Norflex® d) Robaxacet®
Severe debilitating arthritic conditions would likely be treated with a) Actonel® b) Mobicox® c) calcitonin d) Dantrium®
The anti-inflammatory actions of NSAIDs a) have no effect on bursitis b) do not affect soft tissue injuries c) make take several days d) occur within 2-3 hours
Indomethacin a) is always be taken concurrently with Aspirin® b) should be discontinued 6 weeks before surgery c) is a strong NSAID d) is recommended for patients taking anticoagulants
Rheumatoid arthritis a) might be treated with Plaquenil® b) requires high doses of methotrexate c) is managed with muscle relaxants d) is a contraindication for a DMARD agent
With existing osteoporosis, bone formation is stimulated with a) Forteo® b) Ultradol® c) Avara® d) Lioresal®
The following succinylcholine statement is false a) is used in the OR b) paralyzes muscles c) treats malignant hyperthermia d) can cause respiratory arrest
Patients with osteoporosis a) are treated with Avara® or Orencia® b) have no contraindications to their drug regimen c) should only take their medication with sips of water d) should remain standing after taking their medication
Celebrex® a) should be avoided with a known sulfa allergy b) rarely causes side effects c) is safe to use during pregnancy d) should be taken on an empty stomach
Dilantin® a) has very few side effects b) can be administered IV c) is the trade name for primidone d) is used to manage dementia
The patient taking an anti-epileptic drug is told a) that all anti-epileptics are safe to use during pregnancy b) to take the medication with food c) that interactions with other medications are rare d) to discontinue the medication when seizures are controlled
Parkinson’s disease can be treated with a) bromocriptine and selegiline b) Sinemet® and galantamine c) rivastigmine and Symmetrel® d) Parlodel® and Depakene®
Febrile seizures a) might only require Tylenol® b) are common in the elderly c) last at least 10 minutes d) are treated with IV levetiracetam
Depakene® is the trade name for a) gabapentin b) bromocriptine c) lorazepam d) valproic acid
The benefits of antiparkinsonian drugs may not be experienced until a) 24 hours after beginning treatment b) one week after treatments start c) a month after starting treatment d) six weeks after treatments begin
The generic name for Cogentin® is a) rasagiline b) amantadine c) levetiracetam d) benztropine
Patients being treated with Aricept® can expect a) substantial improvements in cognitive function b) a cure for their disease c) the medication’s effects to taper off over time d) reversal of their disease progression
Eldepryl® is used to manage a) Alzheimer’s disease b) Parkinson’s disease c) grand mal seizures d) atonic seizures
Absence seizures a) last 20-30 minutes b) are simple partial onset seizures c) are also called “drop attacks” d) generally affect children
Status epilepticus a) can be life-threatening b) has short recovery periods between seizures c) needs immediate administration of PO anticonvulsant drugs d) requires immediate treatment with Requip®
Sandostatin® can be beneficial in patients with a) hypertension b) esophageal varices c) dwarfism d) osteoporosis
Side effects of thyroid medications are usually due to a) long-term use b) thyroid structural abnormalities c) the synthetics used to formulate the medications d) large doses or overdoses of thyroid drugs
The diabetic patient who is sweaty, confused and irritable needs a) glucagon b) 175mL of diet cola c) Novolin Toronto insulin d) a rapid-acting insulin
Patients taking Glucophage® a) omit a dose on the morning of a contrast-dye x-ray b) have Type 1 diabetes c) must increase their carbohydrate intake d) should stop the medication if they are allergic to sulfa
Patients who are prescribed corticosteroids for prolonged periods a) are at risk for GI bleed if medication is taken with NSAIDs b) should abruptly stop their medication when symptoms resolve c) experience improved and healthier wound healing d) do not experience any adverse effects
The most rapid insulin has an onset that occurs in a) 30-45 seconds b) 1-2 minutes c) 10-15 minutes d) 30-40 minutes
Insulin a) is administered at room temperature b) can be frozen c) must never be refrigerated d) can be warmed in the microwave
The generic name for Diabeta® is a) gliclazide b) glimepiride c) glyburide d) repaglinide
Acute inflammatory conditions may be managed with a) Solu-Medrol® b) Cortrosyn® c) aldosterone d) fludrocortisone
Desmopressin is a) a growth hormone b) safe to use with any chronic illness c) more potent than vasopressin d) a thyroid gland regulator
Thyroid replacement therapy a) can cause bulging eyes b) is usually discontinued after 4 weeks c) must be taken with meals d) includes radioactive iodine
Tapazole® a) enhances T3 and T4 production b) has the generic name propylthiouracil c) can be used to manage hyperthyroidism d) destroys existing thyroid hormones
Magnesium sulfate a) has an excitatory effect on the CNS b) causes hypertension c) is administered in a controlled environment d) can be used for postcoital contraception
Androderm® a) is administered PO b) has no side effects c) is tapered off over a period of 4 days d) must not be abruptly discontinued
Cancer of the prostate might be managed with a) Lupron® b) Halotestin® c) nandrolone d) vardenafil
The patient who underwent an orchiectomy may require a) androgen therapy b) progestin therapy c) enhanced FSH d) an androgen inhibitor
Proscar® a) is of no value when treating BPH b) should be exposed to light c) has teratogenic effects d) can cause a decrease in breast size
Chloasma a) is an adverse reaction to oxytocin b) is a side effect of estrogen therapy c) causes fluid retention d) occurs with the production of LH
After unprotected intercourse, postcoital contraception must be started within a) 12 hours b) 24 hours c) 48 hours d) 72 hours
Patients taking Seasonale® a) are protected from STDs b) take a pill for 21 days, then stop for 7 days c) must also use a second method of birth control d) can expect menstruation to occur every 3 months
The most commonly prescribed progestin therapy is a) progesterone b) Norlutate® c) Provera® d) megestrol
The following Viagra® or Cialis® statement is false a) can cause priapism b) can cause hypotension c) is safe to use with nitrates d) is contraindicated with known cardiac conditions
Oxytocin is contraindicated a) when uterine contractions need to be strengthened b) with a known fetal breech position c) with post-delivery uterine bleeding d) to induce completion of an incomplete miscarriage
Androgen therapy is contraindicated in the male a) who is pre-pubescent b) with symptoms of andropause c) who is diagnosed with BPH d) with delayed puberty
Heparin toxicity is treated with a) vitamin K b) warfarin c) Lovenox® d) protamine sulfate
Prior to taking digoxin, the patient should assess his a) heart rate b) respiratory rate c) oral temperature d) blood pressure
Plavix® and Persantine® a) can cause unwanted bleeding b) are used to treat rapid heart rates c) increase the risk of platelet clumping d) are used concurrently with NSAIDs
The most commonly prescribed antilipemic drugs are a) HMG-CoA inhibitors (statins) b) Questran® and Bezalip® c) Colestid® and Lopid® d) fenofibrate and Niaspan®
The following medication increases the heart rate a) atropine b) Rythmol® c) Cardizem® d) flecainide
Side effects of beta-blockers include a) hypertension and dry cough b) bradycardia and erectile dysfunction c) tachycardia and hypotension d) bronchospasm and tachycardia
Digibind® is used to manage a) atrial fibrillation b) very slow heart rates c) premature ventricular contractions (PVCs) d) Lanoxin® toxicity
Patients who are prescribed antiarrhythmic agents should a) avoid antacids and limit their caffeine intake b) double up on doses when symptoms are more prevalent c) skip doses when the cardiac rhythm seems to be settling d) limit their fluid intake to 300mL of fluid each day
Fragmin® and Lovenox® are administered a) PO b) subcut c) IV d) IM
Activase® rt-PA is contraindicated in the patient with a) acute ischemic stroke b) active bleeding c) pulmonary embolism d) acute MI
Verapamil can be used to manage a) PSVT b) a slow bradycardia c) clotting abnormalities d) hyperlipidemia
Amiodarone can be indicated when treating a) hypotension b) life-threatening VF or VT c) frequent PACs d) bradycardia
Plavix® is prescribed to a) slow a rapid heart rate b) promote vasoconstriction c) reduce cholesterol and triglyceride levels d) prevent platelet aggregation
Atrovent® a) promotes airway constriction b) must be administered IV c) relieves bronchospasm d) is a corticosteroid
Codeine syrup a) intensifies the cough reflex b) is indicated in the patient with a productive cough c) facilitates the expectoration of excessive phlegm d) can be useful with a dry, non-productive cough
Dimetapp® a) has a high sedative effect b) increases nasal secretions c) is an expectorant medication d) can be used to treat acute rhinitis
Treatment of an acute and severe asthma attack would include a) Adrenalin® b) Singulair® c) an opioid antitussive d) a leukotriene receptor agonist
High O2 flow rates are most detrimental in the patient with a) PE b) asthma c) smoke inhalation d) COPD
Ventolin® is a common rescue inhaler. Its generic name is a) salbutamol b) ipratropium c) budesonide d) formoterol
Decongestants can safely be used by the patient with a) upper respiratory tract viral infection b) hypertension c) cardiovascular disease d) hyperthyroidism
Guaifenesin is an expectorant which a) relieves dry, non-productive coughs b) is formulated for long-term use c) can cause gastric irritation d) thickens respiratory secretions
The following saline nasal spray statement is false a) is always safe and effective b) can cause bradycardia c) can be used during pregnancy d) contains no medication
The patient who is prescribed a long-term use of prednisone a) needs to skip a dose of prednisone at least once a week b) requires the daily use of an expectorant c) will notice improved wound healing d) may need vitamin D supplements
The patient who is using Accolate® or Singular® needs regular assessment of a) liver enzymes b) thyroid enzymes c) hepatic enzymes d) gastric enzymes
When teaching older adults, drug adherence and compliance can be boosted by a) providing them with vast amounts of information b) asking them to take notes c) encouraging the use of pill organizers d) speaking loudly in a high-pitched voice
Aging can affect distribution of the following protein-bound drug a) allopurinol b) Digoxin® c) Coumadin® d) amantadine
Cumulative sedation in the older adult can cause a) enhanced drug metabolism b) diarrhea c) improvements in memory d) altered physical performance
To prevent constipation, older adults are encouraged to a) eat a low-fibre diet b) drink more fluids c) use antidiarrheal agents d) add Aspirin® to their daily regimen
The regular use of antacids a) is safe in the older adult b) can mask a GI event c) causes diarrhea d) rarely controls pyrosis
The following statement is false a) reviewing the older adult’s medications can prevent adverse outcomes b) older adults generally use less medications than younger adults c) the older adult is at higher risk for self-medication errors d) in the older adult, adverse drug reactions may be due to physiological changes
Reduced blood flow to the older adult’s GI tract a) results from a decrease in renal blood flow b) is due to increased peristalsis c) enhances drug metabolism d) can cause constipation
Older adults who are taking an NSAID a) must take the drug on an empty stomach b) should add Aspirin® to their pain management regimen c) need a higher dose than taken in their earlier years d) should use the drug for the shortest duration possible
Drug toxicity in the older adult is due to a) brisk and rapid drug absorption b) rapid drug distribution c) increased metabolism of drugs d) reduced excretion of drugs
The use of laxatives in the older adult a) can cause laxative dependence b) controls excessive diarrhea c) must be used for extended periods of time d) is always contraindicated
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