Patients receiving chemotherapy may prevent constipation by a) using more cytotoxic drugs b) spicing their food more liberally c) only eating one meal per day d) increasing their daily fluid intake
Patients receiving chemotherapy may be more susceptible to infection because a) the bone marrow produces less WBCs b) drug dosages are increased c) there is a drop in RBCs d) cells in the GI tract are destroyed
Camptosar® can safely be administered a) IM b) IV c) subcut d) PO
Curative chemotherapy is a) aimed at complete remission b) the reduction of side effects c) only administered for a short term d) appropriate for late-stage cancers
A combination of chemotherapy drugs may be called a a) tonic b) cocktail c) potion d) blend
After treatment is completed, cancer patients should be told a) that the physiological cause of their cancer is now understood b) that OTC drugs no longer have the potential to cause side effects c) to limit their food and fluid intake for the next 6 months d) to use contraceptives for up to 4 months
The trade name for doxorubicin is a) cisplatin b) Adriamycin® c) Kidrolase® d) Camptosar®
The cells’ ability to multiply is called a) mutation b) malignancy c) proliferation d) metastasis
Tamoxifen is a) administered PO b) only given for 2-4 days c) used to manage brain cancers d) a mitotic inhibitor
Chemotherapy-induced bruising and bleeding is due to a) an elevated WBC count b) a reduction in RBCs c) a low platelet count d) a serious decrease in WBCs
Chemotherapy-induced oral and gastric irritation can be minimized by a) taking vitamin C supplements b) avoiding citric fruit and juices c) only eating two meals a day d) decreasing fluid intake
Patients taking furosemide should also be prescribed a) a thiazide diuretic b) potassium c) vitamin K d) Aspirin®
Zaroxolyn® a) is used to manage hypotension b) should be avoided during pregnancy c) promotes the reabsorption of sodium d) is a weak thiazide diuretic
Patients taking diuretics are told a) to anticipate gout symptoms b) to take diuretics at bedtime c) that diuretics never interact with other drugs d) to limit their salt intake
Proscar® and Flomax® are used to manage a) urinary incontinence b) bladder spasms c) overactive bladder d) BPH
Gout symptoms can be managed with a) a urinary analgesic and Lasix® b) Zyloprim® or colchicine c) oxybutynin and a thiazide diuretic d) Acetazolam® or Aldactone®
The drug most likely to be used to decrease cerebral edema is a) Aldactone® b) mannitol c) amiloride d) Urozide®
When Lasix® is administered, a) blood vessels dilate b) sodium is retained c) potassium is retained d) diuresis occurs slowly
The following Pyridium® statement is false a) relieves UTI pain and burning b) does not destroy bacteria c) must be taken for 7-10 days d) concurrent antibiotic therapy is required
Patients being treated with colchicine should be instructed to a) avoid bananas b) increase their salt intake c) limit fluid intake d) limit their intake of organ meats
Lasix® a) has the generic name furosemide b) does not cause the loss of potassium c) is a urinary antispasmodic agent d) should be taken at bedtime
The following medication produces dark orange-red urine a) Detrol® b) Aldactone® c) Lasix® d) Pyridium®
The patient taking Urecholine® a) has been diagnosed with urinary retention b) won’t experience the drug’s effects for at least 24 hours c) can expect the drug to increase the heart rate d) is taking a urinary analgesic
Cimetidine is commonly used to treat a) nausea and vomiting b) peptic ulcer disease and GERD c) flatulence and prolonged diarrhea d) constipation
Lomotil® a) can be purchased OTC b) is used to treat constipation c) is indicated for PUD d) can cause respiratory depression
Patients who are prescribed an anti-diarrheal agent should be told a) to increase their fluid intake b) that blood in the stool is normal with diarrhea c) that the medication is taken for at least 2 weeks d) to follow-up with a physician if diarrhea persists for more than 3 hours
The laxative of choice for diverticulosis is a) Metamucil® b) Citro-Mag® c) Colace® d) mineral oil
Diclectin® a) has the generic name promethazine b) manages pregnancy-induced nausea and vomiting c) is a common hyperosmotic laxative d) is used to manage mild diarrhea
Overuse of Maalox® can increase the risk of a) flatulence b) hypocalcemia c) gastritis d) kidney stones
Pantoloc® a) causes excessive acid secretion b) is used to manage severe diarrhea c) should be taken at least 30 minutes before meals d) has no side effects
The patient taking Phazyme® should a) be given a list of its side effects b) be told that the drug softens the stool c) avoid beans and cabbage d) be aware that the drug has an alcohol-base
Pre-operative bowel surgery preparation will likely include a) Citro-Mag® b) Losec® c) Cytotec® d) Donnatal®
The generic name for Prevacid® is a) misoprostol b) omeprazole c) lansoprazole d) loperamide
Relistor® can be prescribed to a) stimulate the release of bicarbonate b) manage erosive esophagitis c) relieve opioid-induced constipation d) abolish gastric acid secretion
The following statement about laxatives is false a) limit fluid intake when taking laxatives b) can alter the absorption of vitamins c) avoid in the presence of abdominal pain d) electrolyte imbalances can occur
Due to cross-sensitivity, patients who are allergic to penicillin may not be candidates for a) erythromycin b) cephalexin therapy c) treatment with Garamycin® d) tetracycline
Levaquin® is a) administered once a day b) a macrolide antibiotic c) an antibiotic with no known side effects d) a narrow-spectrum antibiotic
The trade name for clarithromycin is a) Biaxin® b) Flagyl® c) Ceftin® d) Clavulin®
The patient being treated with INH and rifampin has a diagnosis of a) bone infection and joint pain b) pelvic inflammatory disease c) urinary tract infection d) tuberculosis
A broad-spectrum antibiotic a) eliminates bacteria as well as viruses and fungi b) does not cause adverse effects c) must be taken for several months d) destroys many types of bacteria
Bactrim® is most likely to be prescribed for the patient with a) endocarditis b) Lyme disease c) a UTI d) endocarditis
Erythromycin a) has actions that last longer than Biaxin® b) is a cephalosporin antibiotic c) can have harsh GI side effects d) carries the trade name Zithromax®
Herpes infections are best treated with a) famciclovir and acyclovir b) moxifloxacin and levofloxacin c) indinavir and nevirapine d) clindamycin and vancomycin
The use of topical antifungals during pregnancy a) is contraindicated b) must be stopped after 48 hours c) can be prescribed for up to one week d) is safe for the full 9month period
Treatment for intra-abdominal infections likely includes a) Flagyl® or clindamycin b) MacroBID® c) Vibramycin® or tigecycline d) Septra®
Patients taking an antiviral medication should a) stop the medication when symptoms improve b) be aware that dizziness is a potential side effect c) know that antivirals do not interact with other drugs d) limit their fluid intake to 1L per day
Instilling ear drops in the adult requires that the ear be pulled a) up and back b) up and forward c) down and back d) down and forward
Eye symptoms due to seasonal allergies can be managed with a) Gantak® b) cromolyn c) ciprofoxacin d) Azopt®
Carbachol is indicated for the treatment of a) keratitis b) conjunctivitis c) cataracts d) glaucoma
All ophthalmic solutions a) can be safely used during pregnancy b) must be discontinued after 48 hours c) are instilled into the upper eyelid d) should be clear
Antibacterial and anti-inflammatory properties are combined in the following ear drops a) Ciprodex® b) Lidosporin® c) chloramphenicol d) betamethazone
A transient yellow stain to tears occurs with a) Isopto Tears® b) fluorescein c) brimonidine d) erythromycin eye drops
Mydriatic eye drops a) cause the pupils to dilate b) increase the production of aqueous humour c) have no local side effects d) always cause systemic reactions
Xalatan® a) is administered tid b) manages fungal infections c) assists with diagnosing corneal defects d) changes the colour of the eyes
Excess cerumen can be relieved with a) Lidodan® b) Ciloxan® c) carbamide peroxide d) clioquinol preparations
Patients using ear drops should be told that a) drops can be warmed in a microwave prior to use b) interactions with other drugs rarely occurs c) side effects are common and can be serious d) a cotton ball should be inserted deep into the ear canal after instillation
Isopto Atropine® is a) used to assess eye structures b) used to produce miosis c) an antiviral medication d) not safe to use with children
Pressure at the inner edge of the eye after instilling eye medications a) should be applied for 10-15 seconds b) is contraindicated with antiglaucoma medications c) reduces the risk of systemic absorption d) limits local side effects
Naloxone a) is administered PO b) effects are seen within 2 minutes c) is a strong analgesic d) carries the trade name Elavil®
Dalmane® is a) administered qid b) is the trade name for flurazepam c) recommended for long-term use d) safe to use throughout pregnancy
Neurontin® a) is a sedative-hypnotic b) can control nerve pain c) is tapered down after an initial high dose d) has no known side effects
The patient who is prescribed 292® tablets is taking a) codeine and Tylenol® b) ibuprofen and Aspirin® c) Aspirin® and codeine d) Motrin® and Tylenol®
Opioid-induced constipation can be managed by a) taking anti-diarrheal medications b) eating a low-fibre diet c) drinking at least 3L of fluid every day d) cutting a trans-dermal patch in half to supply half its dose
Excedrin® is an example of a) a Percocet® product b) a Motrin® product c) a Demerol® product d) an Aspirin® product
The patient with moderate migraine headaches may be prescribed a) methadone b) zopiclone c) midazolam d) dihydroergotamine
Morphine sulfate a) is more potent than hydromorphone b) can be administered by inhalation c) has no effect on the respiratory system d) can be administered PO, IM and IV
Tylenol® a) affects clotting factors b) is safe to use with all other medications c) can cause serious liver disease d) is the trade name for acetylsalicylic acid
The first effects of clonazepam are experienced within a) 5 minutes b) 30 minutes c) 4 hours d) 12 hours
Analgesics a) are all available OTC b) can only be administered PO c) may require long-term intervention d) are never addictive
Lorazepam a) carries the trade name Valium® b) is contraindicated with anxiety disorders c) can be addictive d) is recommended for long-term use
Metadol® is used to treat a) opioid dependence b) social anxieties c) schizophrenia d) alcohol addiction
Celexa® a) is a common antipsychotic drug b) is the trade name for citalopram c) should be discontinued after 7 days d) can safely be taken during pregnancy
Benzodiazepines a) increase CNS activity b) have very slow onsets of action c) are recommended for short-term treatment d) cannot be used to manage alcohol withdrawal
Antidepressants a) rarely interact with other medications b) take effect within 1-2 hours c) can cause dry mouth and constipation d) are safe to use with known cardiac conditions
Chronic alcoholism can cause a deficiency in a) vitamin A b) vitamin E c) vitamin D d) folic acid and thiamine
Antipsychotic medications a) include Anafranil® and Parnate® b) can be taken in conjunction with lithium c) often cure the disorder being treated d) only affect cognitive function
Methadone a) produces a strong euphoric state b) increases the craving for opioids c) only requires one dose per day d) is very short acting
To prevent toxicity, serum levels of the following drug are regularly assessed a) Paxil® b) lithium c) chlorpromazine d) Atarax®
Fluoxetine carries the trade name a) Prozac® b) Zoloft® c) Luvox® d) Cymbalta®
Acute alcohol poisoning may require treatment with a) an osmotic diuretic b) methadone c) tranylcypromine d) hydroxyzine
0 comments